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T.A. Lee's letter (Forum July 5) seemed awfully queer. First of all, the title was inaccurate: "Scriptures don't condemn gays," insinuating that we have no scriptures that condemn the type of sexual perversion currently associated with the word "gay."

A more accurate title would have been: "I'll bet nobody can find a place where Jesus himself condemned homosexual immorality." But then most readers would likely say "so what."He said he didn't want "outside interpretations" of the scriptures. What could be more "outside" than his intimation that homosexual immorality is righteousness (by his use of Matthew 5:10 "Blessed are they which are persecuted for righteousness' sake . . . ")?

There may not be a passage in the New Testament where Jesus himself specifically condemns homosexual immorality "as clear as a bell," but certainly he did not condone immorality of any kind. Forgiving he was - when they would go and sin no more.

The Master condemned lusting after a woman. Are we to think that lusting after a man is not also condemned? I wonder why T.A. even bothered to mention the scriptures. If he will not accept any scriptures other than Jesus' own words - and only those recorded in the New Testament - he obviously doesn't believe the scriptures or Jesus' words anyway.

The scriptures clearly condemn any kind of immoral behavior. If we have no record of Jesus specifically condemning homosexual immorality, are we thus justified in such behavior? I say no.

D. Barker